Ah, normalization was the secret. The phase offset is there because the
subcarriers frequencies each look like a phasor that keeps moving (at a
rate relative to its offset). You want to predict what the phase will be
at the next symbol.
On 01/12/2018 01:59 PM, edwin wrote:
Hi Jeff,
I just found out that if I normalize these taps by the FFT number(64 in
this case), they have magnitude of 1! Now my questions are:
Why are there phase offset? The phase offset for each subchannel seems
different. Is it because of imperfect synchronization?
Regards,
Edwin
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