Bekir <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> 2. There are apparently and exactly three groups; groups 1, 3, 5 that
> had the same proportions of translocation. Therefore, to compare only
> the group 2 and 3 with the control can be appropriate, can it be?
> Thus, there would be two comparisons and the p valus 0.008 (0.008 x 2
> =0.016) and 0.02 (0.02 x 2 = 0.04)would be significant. Is it right?
No, that's not appropriate, because the fact that groups 3 and 5 had the
same proportions is a contingency of your experimental results, not
something that is _a priori_ true, and therefore the (zero) difference in
proportion between them is subject to as much error as any of your other
results.
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