Herman Rubin wrote:
> I will address this point first, as it is equally valid no
> matter what one's view of statistical inference happens to
> be. The point is that the probability of publication
> depends on the p-value. If you have 100 studies published,
> and the distribution of p-values is roughly uniform between
> 0 and .05, this should be looked upon as selection bias,
> and not as meaning anything. On the other hand, if one
> had 100 studies with the p-values coming from a normal
> distribution with mean 1 and variance 1, while these
> p-values would be considerably larger, the evidence of
> the effect would be overwhelming.
I missed something. A truncated N(0,1)? But why would
the evidence be overwhelming if the P values were larger?
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