At 06:14 AM 10/21/00 +0000, Eric Bohlman wrote:
>
>1) It demonstrates that a correlation problem in which one variable is
>dichotomous is equivalent to a two-group mean-difference problem.
maybe you can make this point but, to a typical student ... i would say
this equivalence would be lost
>
>2) It shows that in such a case, the correlation coefficient is a function
>of both a standard effect-size measure (Cohen's d) and the relative sizes
>of the two groups.
great ... if you have talked about these things prior to a simple
correlation coefficient ... how likely is that?
>
>2a) It demonstrates that variations in the relative sizes of the group
>will result in variations in the magnitude of the correlation, even if the
>effect size is held constant.
how is this the case? i don't see n's for the groups in this formula
>
>
>
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dennis roberts, penn state university
educational psychology, 8148632401
http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drober~1.htm
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