At 09:43 PM 10/21/00 -0400, Karl L. Wuensch wrote:
> You all may find this hard to believe, but, in my experience, a large
>proportion of social scientists have the delusion that if you conduct a
>traditional two-group t-test, then you are qualified to make causal
>inferences (that is, variance in the continuous variable is caused by
>alteration of the dichotomous variable), but if you analyze the same
>variables with a correlation analysis you cannot make a causal inference. I
>show my students and colleagues the equivalence of testing the null that the
>point biserial is zero and testing the null that two means are identical,
>and they are amazed.
why do you have to insert the term ... point biserial here? would this be
true if i just used the term ... pearson product-moment correlation?
==============================================================
dennis roberts, penn state university
educational psychology, 8148632401
http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drober~1.htm
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