Jim Clark gave a fine answer to the question posed by Sangdon Lee.
However, I am curious about the correlation and R-square figures given by
Sangdon.  Apparently, the R-squares for the simple linear regressions on
X1 and X2 are (-.2)^2 = .04 and (.3)^2 = .09, but Sangdon says that the
R-sq for the multiple regression is "ONLY" 0.3.  I find this to be
surprisingly high, not low.  In the examples I see, the R-sq for the
combined model is at most the sum of the individual R-squares. Is it even
possible for the opposite to occur?

Rich Einsporn

Sangdon Lee wrote:

> Greetings!
>
> I have one Y and two Xs (X1 and X2), and am trying to perform multiple
> linear regression.  All Xs and Y variables are standardized (zero mean
> and unit variance).  X1 and X2 are moderately correlated (r=0.6) and
> the correlation of X1 and X2 to Y is -0.2 and 0.3, respectively.
> ANOVA shows that the linear regression is significant at p=0.05, and
> X1 and X2 are also significant.  However the r-square is only 0.3.
>
> When I plot the Y versus the predicted Y, I found that Y has a range
> of -3 to 3, but the predicted Y shows the range of -1 to 1.    Could
> somebody explain why the predicted values show much smaller ranges?
>
> Thank you very much in advance.
>
> Sangdon Lee
> General Motors Tech Center
> [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
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--
Dr. Rich Einsporn
Associate Professor,  Dept. of Statistics
The University of Akron
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://gozips.uakron.edu/~rle




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