Hi Jos,
got your msg. Thanks!
> You might consider the distribution of chi-square(df) / (df), which
> as far as I know has not been given a name; this distribution would be
> concentrated around expectation 1 with variance 2/(df).
>
Seems to be reasonable. Like using Cramer's V instead of Chi-square.
The actual problem is that of how to translate this to students,
who are used to:
the farer away from expectation (i.e. uniformity) the more unlikely
is the outcome.
Or opposite:
the expected is the most likely.
If the uniformity is not the most likely, why does it still engaged
as the expected, from where we calculate deviations?
They have to learn a different slogan, i'm afraid...
Gottfried.
---
Jos Jansen schrieb:
>
>(...)
> I hope this will clear up the matter a little.
>
> Jos Jansen
=================================================================
Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the
problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at
http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/
=================================================================
