I have a function X, and two different approximator functions A and B (A-X) is Gaussian (or at least appears to be from mean, variance, skew and kurtosis calculations) with zero mean and variance of Va (B-X) is Gaussian (or at least appears to be from mean, variance, skew and kurtosis calculations) with zero mean and variance of Vb
Va is less than Vb, i.e. A tends to give a better estimate of X than B does. My question relates to the distribution of A. I would like to be able to express this in terms of B (and/or its distribution) and X. As a first guess I used just the distribution of A and the value of X, but quickly realised that this doesn't take account of the correlation between A and B, i.e. if A underestimates X, then more often than not, B underestimates X also. My next suggestion would be to used E(B-A) and X. If I generate a particular value of A (let us call it 'ax') from its distribution (about X). Average this value with b and add it to E(B-A). therefore a=[ax+b]/2+E(B-A) Is this a reasonable thing to do, or is there a better way? ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ =================================================================