Is anyone familiar with Bayesian analysis? In one article posterior density p(a,b,c|y1,...,yn) is proportional to pr(a,b,c)L(a,b,c|y1,...yn) i.e.: p(a,b,c|y1,...,yn) ~ pr(a,b,c)L(a,b,c|y1,...yn)
where pr(*) - prior distribution over vector of parametrs (a,b,c), and (I suppose but I'm not sure) L(*) - is a likelihood function. My question is: how come? I'm not able to figure out why posterior density is proportionat to pr(a,b,c)L(a,b,c|y1,...yn) Any suggestion would be very welcome, I'd appreciate Huxley . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
