Hi

On 4 Apr 2003, dennis roberts wrote:

> At 11:28 PM 4/3/2003, jim clark wrote:
> 
> 
> >As another related argument for the validity of statistical
> >tests, consider a difference of 1$.  That is a real difference
> >for the population, but does it represent discrimination?
> 
> if you want to discuss salary discrimination ... then one
> needs to consider the guidelines for organizations like EEOC
> and others ... to look at what they do

I should have used some more neutral term (e.g., systematic
differences), with discrimination being one possible explanation
for such differences, should they exist.  As to depending on
quasi-legal bodies for final decisions about whether or not
discrimination exists, I can't say I've always been impressed by
the level of reasoning and analysis involved.

> this sort of issue has to do with current payroll employees
> and whether you are compensating them ... males and females
> doing the same sorts of jobs ... fairly

> this is not an inferential problem in the sense of the way we
> teach them in intro stat ... it just is not

You ignored all the preceding part of my post, which was relevant
to this question.  That is, we can and should ask whether the
observed differences could have arisen readily by chance factors.  
I drew an analogy to a randomization test, similar to the point
made by Robert Dawson.  If a coin toss determining gender would
have produced the observed difference or larger a high percentage
of the time, then there is limited basis for concluding that
discrimination exists, no matter how large the observed
difference.

Best wishes
Jim

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James M. Clark                          (204) 786-9757
Department of Psychology                (204) 774-4134 Fax
University of Winnipeg                  4L05D
Winnipeg, Manitoba  R3B 2E9             [EMAIL PROTECTED]
CANADA                                  http://www.uwinnipeg.ca/~clark
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