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Dear Sir/Madam,
I should be so grateful if you please could give me a simple answer for my following question. I have a sample which accounts for about 90% of the population. There was no possibility to include the rest (10%) because of lack of data. From a statistical point of view, Is it advantageous to have this large proportion which nearly the whole population. How does this influence the inferences and conclusions? How different the way in which I look to P values in this case from that in which I have a sample of less percentage (Let�s assume that the missing firms from my sample are represented by similar firms have similar characteristics). (Statistical analysis used includes Kruskal-Wallis, Man-Whitney and Logistic regression). I would highly appreciate it if you please could state your answer in simple terms for a person who is not good at statistics? Thank you


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