I am not making a debating point, you are making an error. It’s one you have 
made on several previous occasions. Normally your posts appear to be 
authoritative, on this topic they are not, so I think it is important to 
correct you lest others with less knowledge or experience are misled. 

There is nothing in the Machinery Directive which, as you put, it "recognizes 
certain product types as having, or being likely to have, a safety standard 
that addresses the same issues as the MD does, and thus do not need to have the 
MD applied”. There is a very strictly defined exclusion relating to certain 
products which are covered by the LVD, but the presence or absence of standards 
has nothing to do with whether or not a manufacturer applies that exclusion. 

It is undoubteldy true that the people who wrote the Directive had in mind that 
products covered by this exclusion have a set of well developed standards which 
can be applied and which include the mechanical risks which would otherwise be 
covered by the Machinery Directive. However, that’s not a basis on which a 
manufacturer is able to make a decision as to which Directive applies.

Your conclusion with regard to the OP is correct, but your reasoning is not. 



On 15 Jul 2014, at 19:04, John Woodgate <j...@jmwa.demon.co.uk> wrote:

> In message <552134b8-c906-4cf7-9ea3-e718815f9...@conformance.co.uk>, dated 
> Tue, 15 Jul 2014, Nick Williams <nick.willi...@conformance.co.uk> writes:
> 
>> There are no products where the mere existence of a standard moves the 
>> product in or out of the scope of the Machinery Directive. None. At. All.
> 
> If that's a comment on one of my posts, I think you are just making a 
> debating point. The MD recognizes certain product types as having, or being 
> likely to have, a safety standard that addresses the same issues as the MD 
> does, and thus do not need to have the MD applied.
> 
> My point is that if, as in the OP's case, there is no such standard, there is 
> no question but that the MD applies.
> -- 

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