Georges Metanomski wrote:
>>>Einstein ... spared particularly Bohr, who went from frustration to
>>>frustration, seeing ... his Orbit Theory wrecked by QT
>>JP: how was the Copenhagen Interpretation of QM in danger of being
>>wrecked by causality?
>G: Because its acausal, creationist bullshit and to make real science
>of QM, Dirac's fundamental change had to start by switching QM to a
>causal model. That's why Dirac co-created the causal quantum model -
>the QFT. BTW Einstein's discovery of photons was the first application
>of QFT, although the name did not yet exist.
standard QM (any intepretation that is based on von Neumann's math) is
causal in the sense that it attributes causal effectiveness to
intentional actions that collapse the wave function (ie measurements).
measurements force a particle existing in a superposition of all
possible values to acquire a single definite value. it is this sense of
causality that your approach to QFT seems to deny.
OTOH, standard QM is acausal in the sense that there are no determinants
of the result of a collapse of the wave function. the actual value
obtained is random. this is also something that you deny.
so, the question becomes: in what sense do you call Dirac's theory a
causal theory? does it show or predict that there are in fact
determinants of the outcome of a collapse? can it predict that, when
measured, a given electron will have spin up on the X-axis and that some
other electron will have spin down?
where is the causality that you say is in QFT? what does it predict that
is different from the predictions of standard QM.
Joe
--
Philosophy is, after all, done ultimately in the first person for the
first person. --- H-N Castaneda
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http://what-am-i.net
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