The answer I prefer is to say that the Nothing and the Everything are
the same Thing. (or rather that they are complementary aspects of the
same thing). Its a bit mystical I know, but the inspiration comes from
the notion of duality in Category theory - for example in the theory
of Venn diagrams, the universal set and the empty set are closely
related (one can find a transformation whereby any theorem expressed in
terms of universal sets can be transformed into an equivalent theorem
containing empty sets).

Hal Ruhl tried a theory based on logical contradictions inherent in
nothings and evrything, that he posted on this list, which was kind of
interesting...

                                                Cheers

Eric Hawthorne wrote:
> 
> In the spirit of this list, one might instead phrase the question as:
> 
> Why is there everything instead of nothing?
> 
> As soon as we have that there is everything, then we have that some aspects
> of everything will mold themselves into observable universes.
> 
> It is unsatisfying though true to observe that there of course cannot be
> a case in which the question itself can be asked, and there simultaneously
> be nothing in that universe.
> 
> I'm with the last respondent though in thinking that the right answer is
> that there is BOTH nothing and everything, but that the nothing is 
> necessarily
> inherently unobservable by curious questioners like ourselves.
> 
> 
> Norman Samish wrote: Why is there something instead of nothing?
> 
> >Does this question have an answer?  I think the question shows there is a
> >limit to our understanding of things and is unanswerable.  Does anybody
> >disagree?
> >
> >Norman
> >
> >
> >
> >  
> >
> 



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