On 8/12/2012 1:57 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Let phi_i be an enumeration of the (partial) computable function.
u is universal if phi_u(x, y) = phi_x(y). (x,y) = some number code for the
couple (x, y)
So can y be some number code for a pair (a,b) and b a code for a pair (c,d),...?
Brent
So phi_u is able to compute phi_i for all i. In that case we say that u emulate
x on y.
u can emulate itself, as in phi_u(u, x) = phi_u(x), but u does not emulate itself per
se, by its own functioning.
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