On 2/7/2014 8:16 PM, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:
On Saturday, February 8, 2014 12:26:29 AM UTC, Russell Standish wrote:
On Fri, Feb 07, 2014 at 03:57:47PM -0800, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
> Ghibbsa,
>
> Let me clarify my previous answer a little.
>
> P-time runs at the same intrinsic rate everywhere in the universe though
it
> doesn't really have a 'rate' in the usual sense since it's prior to
> dimensionality. However that rate is the speed at which the p-time radial
> dimension of the hyperspherical universe extends. That extension actually
> is or produces or generates the 'flow' of p-time.
>
I take it you predict that space has positive curvature (Omega > 1)?
Note that evidence appears to contradict this, and is widely
considered to be the hard evidence killing Tipler's Omega point idea.
Or do you conceive of some method to compute this rate from a negative
curvature?
Furthermore, does your theory impose an embedding dimension for the
spacetime manifold? Because the rate at which the radial dimension
extends is crucially dependent on the embedding dimension.
Note that General Relativity does not require a Euclidean embedding space.
> So p-time runs at the same intrinsic rate and provides the processor
cycles
> of all the computations that produce the current information state of the
> universe. Part of the results of those computations are the different
> relativistic clock time rates of processes throughout the universe.
>
> Hope that makes it a little clearer....
>
Not much. How do you connect the clock speed of your hypothetical
computer with the curvature of spacetime?
Hi Russell, I've been scratching around for ways to assemble Edgar's case at its
strongest, in terms of relativity, without actually adding anything of my own (i.e. what
he has said, just restated).
I know this requires a stretch, maybe too far, of what you can do with a frame in
relativity. But here goes one possibility.
Purely in the sense of how many moments there has been since the big bang, allowing that
every piece of energy in the universe (appropriately nodding at dark energy) has its own
unbroken history back to it. By whatever measure of a 'moment' we like, shouldn't they
all be resolvable in terms of their history to the same number of moments
NO! If each piece of matter carried a clock along (assuming it has indentity) they would
all read differently even where they came together because they would have traveled
different spacetime paths to that meeting. That's why I suggested that for any given
point you take the longest interval back to the CMB and call that the time-coordinate of
that point. And if you took a set of all such points with the same coordinate that's a
way of defining a foliation of spacetime (provided it doesn't have any singular stuff like
black holes and cosmic strings in the way).
Look at Ned Wright's UCLA tutorial online. He describes several different ways to define
a cosmic "now" (but they don't agree with each other).
Brent
SAVE for some 'edge' right at the furthest extent where history is the longest time,
where we allow that relativistic and other inbalances are yet to resolve?
In purely that sense, can we not then say that whatever isn't yet resolved, that being
the subjective now due to relativity among other reasons, can be regarded as resolved at
least relatively speaking to some future time when 13.7B years was a long time a go?
What sense could relativity be outrageously stretched to call that common history on
those terms, a kind of, single frame between units of moments all the same? What is
different between different units of energy at particular numbers of same defined
moments since the big bang, that they are not?
Ways
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