On Sat, Mar 22, 2014 at 6:41 PM, Jesse Mazer <laserma...@gmail.com> wrote:

> So, you admit you were wrong to object to my statement "even with
> reversible laws there is more than one way to get into a given MACROstate"?
>

No, sometimes that would be true but because of chaos it wouldn't always
be. For 2 things to be in the same macrostate small changes to the
microstate must make no difference the way the things behave at the largest
scale, but some systems are inherently chaotic and any change at all in
them can cause a huge macro change in behavior. Some things like a box full
of gas have almost no chaos and that's why the equations of thermodynamics
work. Some systems like planetary motion have only a modest amount of
chaos, and some systems like global weather patterns have lots and lots of
chaos.

> A "microstate" can be used to refer to the exact physical state of any
> system, so even if the most exact possible description of a black hole told
> you nothing but its mass, charge and angular momentum, you could still call
> that a microstate.
>

Or you could call it a macrostate. If physics is not unitary (and it almost
certainly is unitary) and a Black Hole really can be completely described
by just 3 numbers (2 really because the charge is almost always zero) then
the entire macrostate\microstate distinction starts to break down.


> > It is true that if physics is non-unitary then black hole entropy could
> not be defined in terms of its microstates, but that's what I already said,
> that in this case there would be two different types of entropy, one for
> black holes and one for everything else.
>

But it would remain true that  if X is proportional to the logarithm of the
number of microstates in a system then according to the laws of logarithms
X MUST also be proportional to the logarithm of the number of ways the
system could have been produced.


> >>The  physical laws in the Game of Life are not unitary, so a large block
>> of dead cells would be equivalent to a Black Hole in our universe if the
>> laws of physics were not unitary. In both cases it would be gibberish to
>> talk about the microstates of a block of dead cells or of a Black Hole
>> because they would have none, they would only have a macrostate.
>>
>
> > Why would it be gibberish? The "microstate" would have the same meaning
> for a block of dead cells as it would for a block with a mix of live and
> dead cells,
>

Now that I think about it in a block that has a mixture of live and dead
cells in the Game of Life I know what a microstate would mean but I'm not
quite sure what a macrostate would mean. It's supposed to mean behaving the
same at the largest scale even though small changes have been made, but
very small changes can dramatically effect a pattern's macro behavior, some
patterns die completely and will fade away to nothing, some will start to
oscillate and never die, and some finite patterns will generate a infinite
(not just very large but infinite) number of additional live cells.


> > if macrostates are defined in terms of the ratio of live to dead cells
> [...]
>

I think that would be such a crude measure as to be useless. The smallest
known Game of Life pattern that is capable of infinite growth has only 36
live cells, but kill just one of those 36 cells or move just one of the
cells one space to the right (or left or up or down) and the pattern no
longer has that capability to produce infinity. The difference between
finite and infinite is about as macro as you can get, so do you really want
to say any 36 cell pattern has the same macrostate?


>  > Of course I agree the physics in our universe is almost certainly
> unitary, but this whole debate about entropy got started when you suggested
> the second law of thermodynamics was possible to deduce from logic alone,
>

Yes, even if we knew none of the fundamental laws of physics from logic
alone we could deduce that there are more disordered states than ordered
ones, if in addition we assume that in the distant past the universe was in
a much more ordered state (please note this doesn't necessarily mean more
complex) than it is now you could then deduce that something very much like
the second law of thermodynamics must exist. This is unlike the first law
of thermodynamics, we believe in that not because the contrary to it is
illogical but simply because we've never observed it being violated and
using induction we infer that we never will.


>  >> you've got it backwards. If the fundamental laws of physics were
>> non-reversible then it would be easy to see how time could have a preferred
>> direction and easy to understand why the second law of thermodynamics is
>> true.
>>
>
> > It would be easy to see why time would have a preferred direction but
> this wouldn't necessarily be the direction of increasing entropy,
>

Huh? I don't know what you can say about time's dimension except that
entropy increases and the universe expands when you move along it in one
direction and entropy decreases and the universe contracts when you move
along it in the opposite direction.


> > you agree it's possible to have an observer that moves inertially from
> top to bottom of the accelerating elevator in deep space, with no external
> forces from the elevator or anything else acting on him as he travels?
>

Yes.


> > would you also agree that if this observer had a laser emitter at rest
> relative to himself, and he measured its path using his own inertial rest
> frame, he would find that the laser's path was a perfectly straight line in
> this coordinate system?
>

Yes and we've been over this before, there is no contradiction everybody
agrees. You would say that a triangle formed by your lasers contained
exactly 180 degrees and your friend in the accelerating elevator looking at
your triangle would agree with you, it has 180 degrees. And when your
friend forms his own triangle he says it does NOT have 180 degrees, and
when you look at his triangle you agree with him, it doesn't have 180
degrees.


> > So you are claiming that in spite of the fact that special relativity
> applies here, all observers inside the elevator would still agree spacetime
> is curved?
>

No, both you and your friend agree that your triangle was NOT drawn in
curved spacetime.


> >> unless you're talking about Neutron Stars the contribution caused by
>> pressure is far too small to be important (it's trivial even in White Dwarf
>> stars) and unless you're talking about Inflation Theory you never have to
>> worry about tension.
>>
>
> > The Misner/Thorne/Wheeler textbook I linked to indicates that there is
> an exact mathematical relationship between the spacetime curvature and the
> mass/energy density
>

Yes. What is your point?


> > Of course even if one understand the Milne model to be a valid solution
> to the equations of GR, it isn't an accurate cosmological description of
> the real universe since the average energy density of our universe differs
> non-negligibly from zero
>

Nor can Milne explain the cosmic frequency of abundance of  hydrogen,
deuterium, Helium-3, Helium-4, Lithium-6 and Lithium-7 as the Big Bang
theory can. Nor can it explain the Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation
much less it's polarization as Big Bang\Inflation theory can as we
discovered just last week. I'm really being too kind because Milne can't
explain anything at all except a universe with nothing in it. For this
reason nobody is very interested in the Milne model anymore,


> > I assumed that when you said "please show me a place where 3D space is
> curved but 4D space-time is not" you were expressing skepticism that such a
> thing is *theoretically* possible
>

You assumed wrong. Lots of things can be mathematically modeled in a
logically consistent way, but that doesn't necessarily mean they have the
slightest thing to do with the way the world actually works; you can only
decide that through observation.  As I clearly said I already know lots and
lots of places to point my telescope at to observe gravitational lensing,
those are places where spacetime is strongly curved, but I wanted you to
give me the sidereal coordinates I can point my telescope to so I can
observe "the Milne model"  or anywhere else where 3D space is flat but 4d
spacetime is curved (hell, I'll settle for the reverse, a place where 4D
spacetime is flat but 3D space is curved), You are unable to supply me with
such coordinates.


> > Do you agree that the Milne model [...]
>

Enough already, I don't give a damn about the Milne model because it's
transcendentally dull ! It's a trivial case, a universe with absolutely
nothing in it. Zero Zilch nada goose egg. So it's true I couldn't perform
my triangle test there, first  of all because I'm something so I couldn't
be in the Milne universe, and second because there would be no light to
form the triangle, not one single photon.


> >> Isn't it obvious? In General Relativity all of the field equations that
>> include time as a variable also include space variables or variables that
>> can be deconstructed into space, like speed, acceleration, momentum and
>> energy.
>>
>
> > I still don't see how this is relevant to the discussion,
>

It's relevant because if a universe has matter in it (ours does and some
think that fact is rather important) and if 3D space is curved but 4D
spacetime is flat (or the other way around) then one of Einstein's field
equations must describe how matter filled space can be curved without
making use of the time variable or properties that can be deconstructed
into time , like speed, acceleration, momentum, and energy. But there is no
such field equation.


> > unless you are claiming that this implies that in general relativity
> should be theoretically impossible to have a spacetime where the
> 4-curvature is zero but the simultaneity surfaces are chosen in such a way
> that 3-curvature is nonzero,
>

Do you even know what 3-curvature means? Do you imagine that something like
the surface of a basketball is an example of 3-curvature? It isn't, that's
2-curvature, I don't believe anybody can visualize 3-curvature so when
dealing with that we must rely on the mathematics.


> >>I am saying that the shortest path (geodesic if you want to get fancy)
>> between any two events (points in 4D spacetime if you want to get even
>> fancier)  is always the path that light takes.
>>
>
> > So you are talking about actual spacetime path taken by the light,
> rather than the spatial component of the path?
>

There you go again acting as if space can be completely segregated from
time when in reality neither space nor time makes sense without the other.
Remember Minkowski's words:

"Henceforth space by itself and time by itself are doomed to fade away into
mere shadows and only a kind of union of the two will preserve a
independent reality."


> > But your explanation doesn't address the specific question we were
> discussing, namely whether you understand that when they say "the universe
> is flat"
>

It means that astronomers know the maximum linear size that lumps in the
Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMBR) should have, 380,000 light
years, and they know how long it took for light from those lumps to reach
us, 13.8 billion years. So if the 4D spacetime of the universe is flat and
triangles still have 180 degrees then they can use Euclid to figure out
what the angular size those lumps should have, and the answer is about one
degree of arc. So they then go to their telescopes and measure what the
size of the arc actually is, and they find it's about one degree. So they
can conclude that Euclid was right and triangles really do have 180 degrees
and the universe at the largest scale is flat, or nearly so.


> > they are referring specifically to the 3-curvature, not the 4-curvature.
>

Jesse, If time were not a variable in this , if light moved at infinite
speed we would not be seeing what we are seeing now, in fact we would  not
be seeing the CMBR at all, the electromagnetic waves from the Big Bang
would be long gone.


> > I suspect you just haven't thought through your views very carefully
> (you've stated plenty of standard conclusions that I doubt you understand
> the detailed mathematical derivations of, like the conclusion that light
> always follows a geodesic path even in curved spacetime).
>

An event has a position and a time, and a geodesic in space time is just
the shortest path between 2 events; so saying that light always follows a
geodesic even in curved spacetime is just another way of saying that
nothing can travel faster than light even near and massive star where
spacetime is strongly curved. And that's why such stars produces
gravitational lensing.

Light follows a geodesic when it goes through glass too, and light travels
slower through glass than it does through air, so when light is reflected
off an object and passes through glass curved like a lens the path to the
focus is always a geodesic, the path the ray of light takes is not the
shortest path as measured by a tape measure (it's not straight but bent
toward the center of the lens) but it takes the shortest path in 4d
spacetime,;or to say it more simply, light always takes the quickest path
not the shortest between 2 events. So both gravitational lenses and glass
lenses work for exactly the same reason, light ALWAYS follows a geodesic in
spacetime no matter what.


> > What's "vague and muddled" is summing this up with the imprecise phrase
> "always agree on the distance between them in spacetime"
>

There is nothing vague or muddled about the distance between 2 events in
spacetime, it's just a number and it's not even difficult to calculate, I
did it in my High school physics class when I was 16.  And all observers
will agree on what that number is. Minkowski's formula to find this
straight line distance (geodesic) in spacetime between two events is very
similar to and no more complicated than Pythagoras's formula to find the
hypotenuse, the only difference is we subtract and not add the squared time
difference from the squared distance difference, and then take the square
root of the result. Observers in different reference frames will disagree
about the time between 2 events and they will disagree about where the 2
events happened but when any observer use Minkowski's formula they will not
get something vague and muddled they will get a simple number, just one
number. And all observers no matter how radically different their reference
frame may be will get exactly the same number.


> > deciding for yourself that since the sum of angles in a triangle sounds
> kinda sorta like a type of "distance in spacetime" to your ears, that it
> must be something all observers agree on too (even though you have never
> ever heard a physicist claim this about the sum of angles of a triangle
> explicitly).
>

>From http://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/General_Relativity/Curvature

"Einstein's brilliance was to suggest that although gravity manifests
itself as a force, it is in fact a result of the geometry of spacetime
itself. He suggested that matter causes spacetime to curve positively. The
sun, for instance warps spacetime, and it is this warping of geometry to
which the planets react and not directly to the sun itself. *This is a
central tenet of the General theory of Relativity*. This local curvature
can be described in mathematical terms using tensor calculus, an incredibly
elegant tool which provides consistent results, regardless of the chosen
frame of reference."

"This predicts that if a giant triangle was to be constructed around the
sun, the angles at its vertices would in fact add up to more than 180o.
This is easy to imagine if one thinks of the sun as warping geometry,
causing the triangle to have "wonky" sides. However it is
*incredibly*important to note that these lines are in fact the
*straightest
lines possible* (*geodesics*) in this warped geometry. These predictions
can be tested, and have been to a very high degree of accuracy."

> >>I've run across this sort of thing before when somebody is losing an
>> argument, they keep demanding definitions for everything I say.
>>
>>
> > I'm not asking for a verbal definition of the word "angle", but rather
> some details on the *physical procedure* to determine the angle
>

I've heard that there is a new high tech tool called a "protractor".


> > If you do agree that the angle depends on the velocity of the observer
> measuring it, then you should be able to see the rather obvious fact that
> "measure the angle the lasers make at the event of their crossing" is a
> physically ill-defined instruction if you don't specify the velocity of the
> observer making the measurement
>

What on earth are you talking about? This has nothing to do with theory,
this is a empirical observation and a protractor will work just fine for
measuring angles regardless of the theory.

  John K Clark

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