Stupidity really has no limits 😔

Le dim. 9 févr. 2025, 01:17, Alan Grayson <[email protected]> a écrit :

>
>
> On Saturday, February 8, 2025 at 3:20:43 PM UTC-7 Alan Grayson wrote:
>
> On Saturday, February 8, 2025 at 9:23:11 AM UTC-7 Jesse Mazer wrote:
>
> On Sat, Feb 8, 2025 at 9:35 AM Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>
>
> On Saturday, February 8, 2025 at 12:29:55 AM UTC-7 Alan Grayson wrote:
>
> The way I see it there are two frames f1 and f2, *one *rod located at the
> origin of f1, fixed in f1, but moving wrt f2. Of course, frames are
> coordinate systems and our single rod has coordinates in both frames, but
> only *EXISTS* in one frame, f1.
>
>
> Is "only exists in one frame" just a synonym for "only has one frame as
> its rest frame" or does it mean anything more? You agree the single rod can
> be assigned coordinates in both frames, so presumably you agree the
> observer in f2 is still able to see and measure the rod.
>
>
>
> So, using the formula from the pov of f2, the proper length of the rod in
> f1 is L, which is contracted to L'.
>
>
> Yes, that's what I said in point #1 above.
>
>
> Since the rod is fixed in f1, its length is* never* contracted from the
> pov of an observer in f1,
>
>
> Yes, that's what I said in point #2 above.
>
>
> but is always contracted from the pov of an observer in f2, which sees the
> rod moving with velocity v.
>
>
> Yes, that again agrees with point #1.
>
>
> The bottom line is the what is calculated by f2's observer is NEVER
> measured by f1's observer.
>
>
> Calculated using the length contraction equation, or calculated using the
> LT? "What is calculated by f2's observer" using the length contraction
> equation is just the length in the f2 frame (assuming the f2 observer
> inputs the velocity v of the rod in their own frame), not any prediction
> about what is measured in f1.
>
>
> *The simplist way to model this problem is to assume a symmetric
> situation, a rod in each frame of the same rest length, located at the
> respective origins, located at the center of each rod. Then, using the
> contraction formula, and assuming a relative velocity of v, observers
> within each frame, will measure the rod within each frame as having a non
> contracted length, whereas the calculated length of the moving rod it's
> observing will be calculated as contracted.*
>
>
> You can introduce a second rod if you like, but then I would request that
> you have different names for the two rods--say the rod at rest in O1's
> frame (f1) is called R1, and the rod at rest in O2's frame (f2) is called
> R2--and that when you make a statement about what any observer predicts
> about the length of a rod, you specify which rod you are talking about by
> name. Note that if we describe the rods this way, the previous discussion
> was only about the rod R1 at rest in f1, there was no rod R2 in that
> scenario. I think it would be simpler to stick to that scenario with one
> rod viewed in two different frames, but we can also talk about the second
> rod R2 if you feel it's essential.
>
>
>
> * Neither observer measures the rod in its own frame as contracted,*
>
>
> Yes, that agrees with the previous discussion where we just had the rod
> R1, and the observer O1 did not predict it as contracted according to the
> length contraction formula (this was point #2 on my list of 4 points which
> you agreed with. BTW, you didn't respond to my earlier argument that you
> should have no reason to object to point #3, see the argument I made in the
> two paragraphs beginning with my comment "I've asked you a bunch of times
> before about what you mean when you say there is 'no rod'." Do you intend
> to respond to that?)
>
>
> * but the rod from the perspective of either frame using the formula is
> calculated as contracted.*
>
>
> This is the sort of phrase I would want to avoid because it doesn't
> specify which rod is being predicted in which frame using which formula.
> Using the length contraction equation, we get the prediction that the rod
> R1 is contracted on O2's frame, but that the rod R2 has no contraction in
> O2's frame; and the length contraction equation also gives us the
> symmetrical prediction that the rod R2 is contracted in O1's frame, but
> that the rod R1 has no contraction in O1's frame. And I claim that if we
> start with the equations of motion for both R1 and R2 in one frame and use
> the LT formula to predict R1 and R2 in the other frame, we get the same
> predictions as above; for example if we take the coordinates of both rods
> in O1's frame as input, and use the LT to translate to O2's frame as
> output, we again get the prediction that the rod R1 is contracted in O2's
> frame, but that the rod R2 has no contraction in O2's frame.
>
>
> * For this reason I claim the contraction formula never predicts what it
> calculates as the measurement in the target or image frame.*
>
>
> If by "target or image frame" you mean the same thing as what I call the
> "output" of the LT (you seemed to deny this is what you meant by 'target
> frame' in an earlier post, but you never explained what I got wrong), then
> I would deny that there's any disagreement between the LT prediction and
> the measurement, see the paragraph above. Do you disagree with my claim in
> the last sentence that "if we take the coordinates of both rods in O1's
> frame as input, and use the LT to translate to O2's frame as output, we
> again get the prediction that the rod R1 is contracted in O2's frame, but
> that the rod R2 has no contraction in O2's frame"? Or do you agree with
> that, but think that this prediction differs from what O2 actually measures
> for R1 and R2?
>
>
>
> * Also, if one of the frames does NOT have a rod, I mean that the
> contraction formula cannot be applied, since without a rod, the proper or
> rest frame length is undefined, or if you prefer equals zero.*
>
>
> But you still aren't defining what you mean by vague phrases like "the rod
> doesn't exist in one frame" or "one of the frames does not have a rod", I
> keep asking you over and over and over and over again if you're just saying
> there is no rod *at rest in* the frame you're referring to, or if you mean
> something different, but you never answer.
>
> In our previous scenario where there was just one rod R1 at rest in O1's
> frame, would you say that O2 doesn't "have a rod" because there is no
> second rod at rest in O2's frame? But if that's all you mean, surely you
> can't be claiming that there is anything wrong with O2 applying the length
> contraction formula to find the length in his own frame of that rod R1
> despite the fact that R1 isn't at rest in O2? You had no problem with this
> when I stated it as point #1 in my list of 4 points from before.
>
> It seems like you're just exploiting the verbal ambiguity between O2
> "having a rod" in the sense of there being a rod at rest in O2, vs. "having
> a rod" in the sense of having the values of L and v associated with some
> rod to plug into the length contraction formula. But these are totally
> different meanings, and this ambiguity would never arise if you would just
> give me a straight answer to my question asking you to define what you mean
> by such phrases.
>
>
> * A frame without a rod presumably knows the coordinates of the rod in a
> frame which has a rod, and I think you're trying to show below that when
> the LT is applied to the coordinates of the rod in any moving frame, will
> show that my conclusion about contraction and measurement in the symmetric
> situation is mistaken. I need to further study your example using the LT to
> make an intelligent comment. AG*
>
> In contrast, the LT equations *can* be used to predict what is measured in
> f1 if you are given the coordinates of the rod in f2, and in this case the
> prediction will agree with my point #2 above that says the rod has no
> contraction in f1.
>
>
>
> *If so, then the LT and contraction formula disagree in their predictions
> since from the pov of f2, f1 is moving and must be contracted from the pov
> of f2.  I'll have to study further what the LT predicts. AG *
>
>
> *My conjecture is that you might have lost the fact of motion between f1
> and f2 when you used the rod's coordinates in f2 and the LT to calculate
> the measured value of rod in f1 and got its rest length. I suggest you
> review what you did, and if you don't find this error, I will study your
> results in detail. AG*
>
>
> No, I didn't lose that. The equations of motion in the unprimed f2 frame
> described a rod R1 which is moving at 0.6c in the +x direction of the f2
> frame, then I used the LT equations to translate R1's coordinates to a
> primed f1 frame which is also moving at 0.6c in the +x direction relative
> to the f2 frame. In this case the LT equations for x-->x' and t-->t' look
> like this (using units of light-seconds for length and seconds for time so
> that c=1):
>
> x' = 1.25*(x - 0.6*t)
> t' = 1.25*(t - 0.6*x)
>
> The 0.6 in these equations represents the relative velocity of 0.6c
> between f1 and f2, and the 1.25 is the gamma factor which is also based on
> that relative velocity (since 1/sqrt[1 - 0.6c^2/c^] = 1/(1 - 0.36) = 1/0.64
> = 1.25). So yes, please study that numerical example and see if you agree
> with all the steps, and if not tell me where you disagree.
>
> Jesse
>
>
> *Let me make a constructive criticism; don't parse my comments. Read them
> in their entirety before responding. And make better use of your
> imagination in understanding my comments, which are quite clear and not at
> all ambiguous as you claim. AG*
>
>
> *Congratulations to us! We've proven that SR has a fatal irreparable flaw;
> specifically, that the LT, using coordinate transformations, predicts the
> rest length of a rod in f1 as calculated from f2, where the frames have non
> zero relative velocity v; whereas the contraction formula derived from the
> LT, always predicts a contracted length under the same conditions, and
> never the rest length. Where shall we publish? AG *
>
>
>
> You can, of course, reverse the frames which do the calculations, but you
> can't get symmetric results because *there is NO rod in f2's frame *for
> which the formula can be applied.
>
>
> If by "no rod in f2's frame" you just mean no rod *at rest* in f2's frame,
> and if "the formula" in your statement refers to the LT rather than the
> length contraction formula, then I would just point out that the LT
> equations do not *require* that an object be at rest in the input frame to
> predict the coordinates of the same object in the output frame. See my
> numerical example a few posts back, where I gave these coordinates for the
> front and back of a moving rod in the unprimed frame (corresponding to what
> you're calling the f2 frame):
>
> Back of the rod: x = 0.6c*t
> Front of the rod: x = 8 + 0.6c*t
>
> Do you AGREE/DISAGREE that these equations for position as a function of
> time describe a rod which is *not* at rest in f2? For example, at t=0 the
> equations tell you that the back of the rod is at x=0 and the front of the
> rod is at x=8, then 5 seconds later at t=5 the equations tell you the back
> of the rod is at x=3 and the front of the rod is at x=11, so the whole rod
> has moved forward by 3 light-seconds in those 5 seconds. So maybe the rod
> doesn't "exist" in this frame f2 according to your idiosyncratic phrasing,
> but it is clearly being *described* in terms of the coordinates of f2, and
> that description includes the fact that it is moving relative to f2.
>
> If we look at the set of spacetime coordinates that the front or back of
> rod will pass through in this frame, we can perfectly well use those
> unprimed coordinates as inputs for the x-->x' and t-->t' Lorentz
> transformation equations, and get the set of primed coordinates the front
> and back of the rod pass through in the f1 frame as output. For example if
> you take x=3, t=5 for a point the back end passes through, you can plug
> those values into the LT equations x' = 1.25*(x - 0.6*t) and t' = 1.25*(t -
> 0.6*x), and get x'=0, t'=4 as. output. Do you AGREE/DISAGREE that the LT
> can be used this way?
>
> Jesse
>
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