Need a little sanity check here.

Assuming one Exchange org, with example.com and test.com both as valid smtp
domains internaly/externally.

I believe in Ex2k3 SP2 you _can_ set up different external url (does't
really matter so long as /exchange is specified) while enabling FBA on the
IIS owa virtual dir so long as you have a separate front-end server while
accessing the same backend mailbox servers, correct?

In other words, I can't have user on EX2k3-BE1 access his mailbox via

mail.example.com
mail.test.com

both pointing to one single OWA server with FBA enabled.

However, I can have
mail.example.com pointed to OWA1
mail.test.com pointed to OWA2

Correct?

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