At 10:24 PM 11/01/03, d. collins wrote: >I see in several books (Ross, etc.) that the tempo indication should be >aligned with the time signature. But what if there is no change in time >signature? Does one align it with the first note in the new tempo?
That's what I would do. >And if this is a tempo change inside a movement, does one still use a cap? Unless I'm following a source that doesn't (eg, Mahler), yes. mdl _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
