On 3 Feb 2005 at 12:07, Andrew Stiller wrote: > In any event, "emancipation of the dissonance" certainly does not > imply elimination of the consonant. I recently had a conversation with > a couple of young composers, one of whom had never heard the term. The > other one helpfully said, "it means you don't have to resolve them." I > don't think anyone could possibly define it better.
How do you tell the difference between the consonance and the dissonance, then? Without reference to other music or a system of rules not reflected in the musical text where the dissonance is never resolved, the two terms are simply meaningless. At least, so it seems to *me*. -- David W. Fenton http://www.bway.net/~dfenton David Fenton Associates http://www.bway.net/~dfassoc _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list Finale@shsu.edu http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
