On 16 Feb 2006 at 23:50, Andrew Stiller wrote: > (17th-c. orchestras had no 16' voice)
Is this really true as an unqualified statement? Orchestral practice was very, very different in different places, and, of course, the whole idea of an "orchestra" did not really quite yet exist in the way we use it. There were certainly 16' instruments used in various repertories of vocal music with instruments (especially in Germany) and in instrumental music alone (in England, and in Italy, too; I don't know so much about French music of the period). While these weren't "orchestral" music, they were not so much different from music that had "massed" (relatively speaking) string bodies (i.e., multiple players on a part, instead of solo). I just don't think it was quite as simple as "no 16' voice in 17th century orchestras" would make it sound. -- David W. Fenton http://dfenton.com David Fenton Associates http://dfenton.com/DFA/ _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list Finale@shsu.edu http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
