On 12.01.2007 Andrew Stiller wrote:
On Jan 11, 2007, at 12:36 PM, Johannes Gebauer wrote:
the main reason imo is that the change from Baroque to Viennese Classical was
more radical than any other up to that time.
Now just a pea-pickin' minute here! Surely you're not claiming this change was
greater than that from Renaissance to Baroque (1600) or Ars Subtilior to
Burgundian (1450) or Ars Antiqua to Ars Nova (1300)--are you??
Certainly more radical than from Rennaissance to baroque (how radical
was that?) As for the others I don't want to take an opinion, but I
actually don't think this to be relevant. The changes from Baroque to
Classical are superficially minor, but if you examine them closer, they
are extreme. The main thing is that things happened quickly, and in the
whole of Europe more or less at once. What comes out of that is imo the
most complex, intellectual, yet generally comprehensible and universal
musical style up to that date (if not for the whole of music history).
Such had never happened before.
If so, please allow me quietly to demur.
Sure.
Johannes
--
http://www.musikmanufaktur.com
http://www.camerata-berolinensis.de
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