On May 7, 2007, at 10:41 AM, Chuck Israels wrote:
On May 6, 2007, at 11:36 PM, Randolph Peters wrote:
For example, I sometimes get asked if an accidental in one octave
affects another octave. (Where are these otherwise fine musicians
taught anyway?) I find it an especially strange question when the
music is far from tonal.
I've had trouble with this one - fine musicians in the Metropole
Orchestra assumed that an accidental in a lower octave carried over to
a higher octave. [...] So what is the rule, and does it change from
place to place and culture to culture? I have assumed, new octave =
new situation. Perhaps this is not right.
Prior to about 1870, the rule was that an accidental applies to all
octaves within its measure. Since then the rule is that it applies only
to the octave in which it was written. The problem is that the
classical standard repertoire is dominated by pieces written to the old
rule, and so may improperly carry it over to more recent work.
There are actually a great many conventional notations whose meaning
changed in the period between, say, Mendelssohn and Bartòk, but most
musicians don't realize this.
Andrew Stiller
Kallisti Music Press
http://www.kallistimusic.com/
_______________________________________________
Finale mailing list
Finale@shsu.edu
http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
