Have you searched him to insure he has no deadly weapons at hand? 

Police experience with a person with a knife can close a distance of 
21 ft. or less and strike a fatal blow before you can stop him with 
gun fire from most handguns.  That is why they shoot persons with 
knives who get too close.  Even if he has no knife visible, can you be 
sure he doesn't have one he can access and attack you before you react 
or react with enough force to stop him.

Do you even know what your reaction time is to an attack -- you ought 
to try it and see, you'll be surprised.

So, now I have to wonder whether the question is an legal one for 
dealing with the aftermath of some attack (and with time for due 
reflection) or whether it is a pragmatic one for a continuing 
conflict -- and the conflict is continuing unless the perp is totally 
submissive and responds to commands. 

If you've taken a gun away from an attacker, you should increase the 
distance between you for your safety (retreat also has a nice legal 
effect).  I would guess that the issue of using deadly force at this 
moment would depend on whether you are not able to reach a safe 
distance.

Phil

> I think the crux of the question is that "4) He is not fleeing." is 
not enough info.
> 
> If you shoot him immediately upon gaining control of the gun, while 
the struggle continues (i.e., before you have him completely at your 
mercy), then you could argue that the original threat was not 
nullified just because you and he were struggling over the gun.
> 
> If you break off the physical struggle, and you have the gun, and 
you think you have him covered, but then he lunges at you, a 
reasonable person could fear he will take the gun and kill you.  I'm 
pretty sure what would happen if a cop has drawn down on me and I 
lunge at him.
> 
> If he just stands there, glaring at you, refusing commands to lay 
down, etc., then I don't see how deadly force is justified.
> 
> 
> >>> "Raymond Kessler" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 9/20/2007 10:20 AM >>>
> Interesting hypo!  Let's look at it from the 4th Amend. perspective. 
Some
> would argue that Tenn. v. Garner would apply, but I would argue that 
Tenn.
> v. Garner is a fleeing suspect case and that if the suspect is not 
fleeing
> anything else in Garner is dictum.   If Garner doesn't apply then we 
have to
> fall back to the balancing and objective reasonableness approach of 
Graham
> v. Connor.  Using this approach we have to ask what would a 
reasonably well
> trained officer have thought/done when faced with the same 
circumstances.
> Because the test is objective, the fact that the officer still 
considers the
> suspect dangerous (stipulation # 3) is irrelevant.  There has to be
> something in the scenario that would cause an objectively reasonable 
officer
> to believe the suspect was still dangerous and deadly force is 
necessary.
> Given that the officer successfully took the weapon from the 
suspect, in the
> absence of additional facts, the use of deadly force would not 
appear to be
> objectively reasonable.  
> 
>  
> 
> The basic problem is that the threat of deadly force does not appear 
to be
> imminent. I would argue that in self-defense cases (as opposed to 
fleeing
> felon cases)  the Fourth Amendment requires that the threat be 
imminent.  In
> general, the law of civilian self-defense also requires that the 
force be
> imminent.  
> 
>  
> 
> The fact that the suspect was immediately dangerous a few moments 
ago but
> then now no longer has the gun (and the officer successfully took 
it) does
> not substitute for (or constitute)  a reasonable perception of an 
imminent
> threat.  The fact that the suspect does not retreat arguably would 
suggest
> to a reasonable officer that the suspect is submitting.  In the 
absence of
> additional facts, it would be hard to argue that submitting would 
create a
> reasonable perception of an imminent threat.
> 
>  
> 
> Obviously, more facts could change the result, (e.g., suspect 
continues to
> approach the officer after  being ordered to stop, suspect refuses 
to put
> hands up and reaches in jacket, suspect is close enough to possibly
> overpower officer without gun and get gun in officer's possession) 
but I
> agree that shooting the suspect with the suspect or the officer's 
weapon
> would not be justified at this point.  
> 
>  
> 
> I would be interested in seeing how some of the rest of you would 
analyze
> this situation.
> 
>  
> 
>  
> 
>  
> 
>  
> 
>  
> 
>   _____  
> 
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
> [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Guy 
Smith
> Sent: Monday, September 17, 2007 10:17 PM
> To: 'List Firearms Reg'
> Subject: [BULK] Disarm and shoot legalities
> Importance: Low
> 
>  
> 
> After a recent martial arts class where we were learning how to take 
a gun
> away from an attacker, an interesting question came up and I was 
unsure of
> the answer.  Stipulated:
> 
>  
> 
> 1)       A mugger had pointed a gun at you and you were in 
reasonable fear
> of your life.
> 
> 2)       You successfully take the gun from him.
> 
> 3)       You still consider him dangerous though you do not see him 
holding
> another weapon.
> 
> 4)       He is not fleeing.
> 
>  
> 
> Can you shoot him with his own gun?  My gut instinct is that you 
would be
> charged with aggravated assault at very least.  But does the mugger's
> immediately previous action and lack of retreat constitute a 
continuing
> threat, justifying lethal force?
> 
>  
> 
> Yours in Liberty
> 
> Guy Smith
> 
> Author, Gun Facts
> 
> [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
> 
> www.GunFacts.info 
> 
>  
> 
> _______________________________________________
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> 

-- 
The Art of war is simple enough. Find out where your enemy is. Get
at him as soon as you can. Strike at him as hard as you can and as
often as you can, and keep moving on.
 -- Ulysses S. Grant
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