On Mon, Nov 19, 2012 at 05:05:42PM -0000, Stefan Kohl wrote: > Proving finiteness of all cycles may be pretty hard, however.
Indeed, this problem is too close to the Collatz ((3n+1)/2) conjecture for comfort. The Collatz sequence can be restated in your notation by asking whether the orbits of Z under M are finite, where M is the submonoid of Z^Z generated by a = (1(2)->2(3)) and b = (0(2)->0(1)) (a and b are not one-to-one). Cheers, Bill. _______________________________________________ Forum mailing list Forum@mail.gap-system.org http://mail.gap-system.org/mailman/listinfo/forum
