Thanks for putting in a little more effort. So, in your definitions, 1/aleph0 = 1/aleph1. That's tightly analogous, if not identical, to saying a point is divisible because point/2 = point. But before you claimed a point is indivisible. So, if you were more clear about which authority you were citing when you make your claims, we wouldn't have these discussions.
On 7/23/20 10:35 AM, Frank Wimberly wrote: > I am aware of the hierarchy of infinities. Aleph0 is the cardinality of the > integers. Aleph1 is the cardinality of the power set of the integers which > is the cardinality of the real numbers (that's a theorem which is easy but I > don't feel like typing it on a cellphone keyboard). Aleph2 is the > cardinality of the power set of aleph1, etc. > > In my definition of 1/infinity, assume infinity means aleph0. But I believe > it works for any infinite number. That last word is important. -- ↙↙↙ uǝlƃ - .... . -..-. . -. -.. -..-. .. ... -..-. .... . .-. . FRIAM Applied Complexity Group listserv Zoom Fridays 9:30a-12p Mtn GMT-6 bit.ly/virtualfriam un/subscribe http://redfish.com/mailman/listinfo/friam_redfish.com archives: http://friam.471366.n2.nabble.com/ FRIAM-COMIC http://friam-comic.blogspot.com/
