Harry Pollard wrote: > The 'half of all marriages ending in divorce' isn't so. > > I've forgotten the real figures but that doesn't matter. I'll just > example some. > > Say their are 40 million marriages. Also, let's say that this year there > are 100,000 marriages and 50,000 divorces. This leads to the idea that > half the marriages end in divorce. But, of course, it's 50,000 divorces > out of 40 million.
If, in a country of 8 million people, this year there are 125,000 births and 100,000 deaths, does that mean that 20% of humans are immortal, or that most humans are immortal (because it's only 100,000 deaths out of 8 million) ? Or perhaps does it mean that 0% of humans are immortal, because adding up the annual number of deaths over 80 years (avg. lifespan) gives 100% of the population ? > And at the end of the year, the marriage total has increased by 50,000. What about the marriages that were "divorced" by death ? If 50,000 marriages were divorced by lawyers, and 50,000 marriages were "divorced" by death, then the marriage total (with 100,000 new marriages) has increased by _0_, and half the marriages end in divorce [assuming the same number of new marriages in the past]. Chris ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ SpamWall: Mail to this addy is deleted unread unless it contains the keyword "igve". _______________________________________________ Futurework mailing list [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://scribe.uwaterloo.ca/mailman/listinfo/futurework
