Hi, How would you infer "a" from "F a"? Given "bar :: Bool", I can't see how one could go from "Bool" to "F a = Bool" and determine "a" uniquely.
My question is not completely retorical, if there is an answer I would like to know it :-) Gruss, Christian * Conal Elliott <co...@conal.net> [13.01.2013 20:13]: > I sometimes run into trouble with lack of injectivity for type families. > I'm trying to understand what's at the heart of these difficulties and > whether I can avoid them. Also, whether some of the obstacles could be > overcome with simple improvements to GHC. > > Here's a simple example: > > > {-# LANGUAGE TypeFamilies #-} > > > > type family F a > > > > foo :: F a > > foo = undefined > > > > bar :: F a > > bar = foo > > The error message: > > Couldn't match type `F a' with `F a1' > NB: `F' is a type function, and may not be injective > In the expression: foo > In an equation for `bar': bar = foo > > A terser (but perhaps subtler) example producing the same error: > > > baz :: F a > > baz = baz > > Replacing `a` with a monotype (e.g., `Bool`) eliminates the error. > > Does the difficulty here have to do with trying to *infer* the type and > then compare with the given one? Or is there an issue even with type > *checking* in such cases? > > Other insights welcome, as well as suggested work-arounds. > > I know about (injective) data families but don't want to lose the > convenience of type synonym families. > > Thanks, -- Conal > _______________________________________________ > Glasgow-haskell-users mailing list > Glasgow-haskell-users@haskell.org > http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/glasgow-haskell-users
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