Jan, you and I have the same understanding i.e. float <-> int is obviously non-free, but I can't think of why int <-> uint will not be free. However, I want someone with knowledge of the compiler/runtime/codegeneration/SSA internals that can give me a definitive answer.
On Saturday, November 24, 2018 at 10:25:58 AM UTC-5, Jan Mercl wrote: > > On Sat, Nov 24, 2018 at 4:02 PM Ugorji Nwoke <ugo...@gmail.com > <javascript:>> wrote: > > > I understand the rules from the context of the language and what the > compiler will accept - conversion MUST be explicit. I am asking if there is > any runtime cost to the conversion between int and uint, > > given that they "should" have the same representation, or if it is free. > I can see how there is a cost for float64 <-> float32, or for float64 <-> > int, but is there a cost for the specific case of int <-> uint? > > 'floatxx' <-> 'floatyy' <-> 'intzz' is obviously non free. > > But what possible run-time cost in conversion between 'uint' and 'int' - > considering it's always valid and the bit representations have the same > shape, size, organization and modulo the sign bit also interpretation - can > you think of? > > > > -- > > -j > -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "golang-nuts" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to golang-nuts+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com. For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/d/optout.
