Kevin
On 12/18/05, Nancy Anthracite <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
No, in my opinion, you did NOT authorize it and I hope the heck the labs fight
this. I suspect that the Department of Health is using something from the
wording in the law that governs it to perpetuate this outrage.
The last thing I read was patients could opt out, and it ought to be that they
can opt in, not out. The default should be protection, not invasion, of
privacy. I find this incredibly out of line and I sure hope the AMA, etc.,
etc, fight it tooth and nail.
On Saturday 17 December 2005 10:57 pm, steven mcphelan wrote:
Isn't this a violation of HIPAA? When did the labs get the patient's
written approval to send their test results to a metro database unless all
patient specific identifiers where removed prior to sending that data to the
Health Dept. In that case it would not be a HIPAA violation.
I guess I should read the waiver we all sign at the doctor's office where
the specimen may be collected. Did we sign a HIPAA waiver that effective
grants "pass through"? That is since I authorized the doctor to pass
medical data back and forth between the lab, did I also authorize the lab to
also do so without any further written approval from me?
