> Date: Tue, 14 Dec 2004 10:24:15 -0500 > From: Andrew Pimlott <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> > Subject: Re: [Haskell-cafe] The difference between ($) and application > > On Tue, Dec 14, 2004 at 11:23:24AM +0100, Henning Thielemann wrote: > > > > On Tue, 14 Dec 2004, Andrew Pimlott wrote: > > > > > (Of course, it's still useful, by itself or in a slice, as a higher-order > > > operator.) > > > > You can also use 'id' in this cases, right? > > I'm thinking of things like > > zipWith ($) > map ($ x)
You can indeed use zipWith id map (`id` x) instead. Look at the types: id :: a -> a ($) :: (a -> b) -> (a -> b) The function ($) is the identity function, restricted to functions. Nevertheless, I find using ($) in such a situation more descriptive than using id. Cheers, Andres _______________________________________________ Haskell-Cafe mailing list [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell-cafe
