I've been wondering, is it ever possible to have two (extensionally) different Functor instances for the same type? I do mean in Haskell; i.e. (,) doesn't count. I've failed to either come up with any examples or prove that they all must be the same using the laws.
Thanks, Luke _______________________________________________ Haskell-Cafe mailing list Haskell-Cafe@haskell.org http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell-cafe
