Is f(~p(x))=e(x) semantically equivalent to: f(z)=e(x) where p(x)=z?
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Is f(~p(x))=e(x) semantically equivalent to: f(z)=e(x) where p(x)=z?
_______________________________________________ Haskell mailing list Haskell@haskell.org http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/haskell