Thanks for clarifying, given the lack of details I jumped to
conclusions.  Still, I don't see how anonymous contributions were
involved?

/Simon

Stephan Wenger <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:

> Hi Simon,
> the case I was thinking about was this one:
> http://www.consortiuminfo.org/standardsblog/article.php?story=20070323094639
> 964
>
> Stephan
>
>
> On 3/25/08 3:33 PM, "Simon Josefsson" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
>> [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
>> 
>>>> [...]
>>>>> If we learned that the anonymous posting actually came from person was
>>>>> affiliated with the IPR holder, then there is legal recourse.  My
>>>>> point is that by avoiding anonymous posting, the likelihood of such
>>>>> abuse is significantly reduced.
>>>> 
>>>> I think the point would be valid if there were significant abuse today.
>>>> 
>>> 
>>> I don't know what would qualify as significant here, but there has been at
>>> least one rather high profile antitrust case in the recent history
>>> (semiconductor industry), in which a situation similar to the one we are
>>> discussing has played a role.
>> 
>> If the account at
>> 
>> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rambus#Lawsuits
>> 
>> is to be trusted, I can't find many similarities with the situation we
>> are discussing here.  Could you clarify how anonymous contributions
>> played a role in your example?
>> 
>> /Simon
>> 
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