Hi Ralph,

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Ralph Droms" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Fred Templin" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Cc: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>; "Stig Venaas" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Wednesday, August 25, 2004 6:56 PM
Subject: Re: Stateful != M , Stateless != O


> I disagree with the interpretation of M=0.
>
> M has no impact on stateless autoconf.  The existence
> of prefixes in the RA marked as "autoconf from this
> prefix" controls stateless autoconf.  If M=0 and no
> prefixes are advertised as autoconf-able, the host
> has no assertion that DHCP is available and no prefixes
> to autoconf addresses from.
>
> If M=1 and autoconf prefixes are available, the host
> does both DHCP and stateless autoconf.

Why is that any host needs to get two addresses?
Is there any scenario where this is useful?

I think the router shoud advertise imfomation such a way that
the host configures the address using one of the methods (Stateless or
Stateful).

Also I think node should decide which method to use for configuring
address after collecting the information from the RAs, i.e. it should invoke
either DHCPv6 or Stateless Address Autoconfiguration.

-Syam


>
> - Ralph
>
> At 01:18 PM 8/12/2004 -0700, Fred Templin wrote:
>
> >Stig Venaas wrote:
> >
> >>My thinking is:
> >>
> >>M=0, O=0 stateless autoconf of addresses
> >>M=0, O=1 stateless autoconf of addresses + information-request
> >>M=1, O=0 stateful autoconf of addresses
> >
> >It seems from these discussions that a more precise
> >representation might be:
> >
> >  M=0, O=0 stateless autoconf of addresses
> >  M=0, O=1 stateless autoconf of addresses + information-request
> >  M=1, O=X stateful autoconf of addresses + information-request
> >
> >where, X  = "Don't-Care". Does this match up with the emerging
> >consensus? Is there really nothing better to be done with the
> >"O" bit when the "M" bit is set?
> >
> >Thanks - Fred
> >[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
>
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