>> The second question regards the uniqueness of host >> identifiers. Suppose we define the address used for stateless >> translation as: 32 bit "provider" prefix, 32 bit IPv4 >> address, and a constant identifier, either 0 or the "checksum >> neutrality" value, which is only a function of the provider >> prefix. Suppose now that for some reason there are two "IPv4 >> addressed" hosts on the same link, e.g. because many servers >> are located in the same server room. The two hosts will have >> different addresses, in different 64 bit subnets, but they >> will also have different host identifiers. Is that OK? > > Why wouldn't it be OK? I can't see why it's a question. > The normal expectation is that different hosts have different > IIDs so I am curious why this matters.
I just realize I made "typo". I meant to say " The two hosts will have different addresses, in different 64 bit subnets, but they will also have the same host identifiers. Is that OK? -- Christian Huitema -------------------------------------------------------------------- IETF IPv6 working group mailing list ipv6@ietf.org Administrative Requests: https://www.ietf.org/mailman/listinfo/ipv6 --------------------------------------------------------------------
