Is this FAQ correct: http://docs.jquery.com/Frequently_Asked_Questions#How_do_I_disable.2Fenable_an_element.3F
The example code given for the FAQ is: // Disable #x $("#x").attr("disabled","disabled"); // Enable #x $("#x").removeAttr("disabled"); but I tried this: // Disable #x $("#x").attr("disabled",true); // Enable #x $("#x").attr("disabled",false); and it seems to work fine. I prefer this approach because it is easier to chain together several commands, like this: (function($){ $.fn.mydisabled = function(trueorfalse) { return this.attr('disabled', trueorfalse) .css('background-color', trueorfalse ? '#CCC' : '#FFF') .css('color', trueorfalse ? '#333' : '#000') .css('opacity', trueorfalse ? 0.5 : 1.0); } })(jQuery); $("#x").mydisabled(true); The documentation page for attr [1] shows the attr("disabled","disabled") style but does not mention using true or false for the attribute value. [1] http://docs.jquery.com/Attributes/attr So I'm wondering if setting boolean attributes, like disabled and readonly, to true or false is correct or is this deprecated behavior that might be removed in a future release? Thanks Allen