tangent, moved to Chat:
At 02:06 AM 4/25/05 -0400, Tamara P Duvall wrote:
> My French is non-existent, yet
> Polish insists on using French - with Polish spelling <g> - when a
> foreign phrase describes a situation better than a {Polish one...)
English got its habit of French interjections from a little event in 1066 --
but where did Polish pick it up?
Do you also have latin stock phrases? (e.g.: etc., i.e., q.v., Q.E.D.,
gustabis non disputandem est, habeus corpus, quid pro quo, carpe diem, . . . )
--
Joy Beeson
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