>>>>> Martin Michlmayr <[email protected]> writes:
> To show this better, let's take this example: 1 buy 1 AAA for $10 and then > sell this 1 AAA for $12. The costs are: $10 and $-12, and ledger -B on the > investment account - which is now empty - will show $-2. > How can the cost basis of an empty account be $-2? This statement is crystal clear, thanks!. I'll add this to my notes and think on it. I believe you're entirely correct, now I just have to find a way to resolve this which doesn't break what everyone has grown used to. John
