I presume that the fees are a liability rather than a paid expense 
otherwise the fees would be taken from a bank account . Probably the best 
way to would be to have two extra accounts: A depreciation account and a 
liability account:

Example:
2021-01-04 * "Fees & Depreciation"
  Assets:TraditionalIRA              -0.50 USD
     Expenses:Depreciation               0.50 USD
  Liabilities:TraditionalIRA:fees    -0.50 USD
  Expenses:Fees                       0.50 USD


On Monday, May 3, 2021 at 2:41:04 AM UTC+8 Aaron Stacy wrote:

> Hi everyone, I'm trying to book a 401k fee. I'm using beancount, but 
> hopefully the syntax is similar enough:
>
> ; Assume the price for TraditionalIRA was $1/share when purchased
> 2021-01-03 balance Assets:TraditionalIRA    10 TRADIRA
>
> ; Now the broker wants to charge $0.50 in fees, and the price of 
> TraditionalIRA
> ; has dropped to $0.50/share. For tax purposes, the cost basis is all
> ; essentially zero, so (presumably to keep things simple) they just deduct
> ; (fee / share price) from the shares.
> 2021-01-04 * "Fee"
>   Assets:TraditionalIRA                     -1 TRADIRA @ 0.50 USD
>   Expenses:Fees                           0.50 USD
>
> 2021-01-05 balance Assets:TraditionalIRA     9 TRADIRA
>
> The problem is this is ambiguous about the cost basis now. It may not 
> matter for tax purposes, but I care. I'd like to simply deduct the 1 
> TRADIRA share from the lot purchased at $1/share, but that doesn't balance:
>
> 2021-01-04 * "Fee"
>   Assets:TraditionalIRA                     -1 TRADIRA {1 USD} @ 0.50 USD
>   Expenses:Fees                           0.50 USD
>   ; This transaction is -0.50 from balancing
>
> So I suppose this makes sense since, because the price went down, I lost 
> 50 cents, so that should come from somewhere.
>
> What's a good account to take this from? Maybe Income:TraditionalIRA?
>
>

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