I could use more clarification, I keep reading what seem to be conflicting or nuanced positions.
What We Want to Do I want to generate a map for a company intranet site showing a client where his vehicles are currently based on lat/long coordinates (given to us by our proprietary mobile app which they run) and existing customer locations (to which those trucks are driving today) (based on the business addresses the customers have previously given to us). We'd set up an OSM tile server for this and use a library for layering/interaction. We don't need to make available our database of truck locations/client addresses. Legal Confusion My reading of the OSM terms lead me to believe that the matching between independent data and OSM data is trivial and thus it is a Collective Database and thus I base this on OSM Legal FAQ which says in 3d, "However, if the two datasets are matched 'trivially' by, for example, automated matching using a simple criterion such as name/locality, this is not 'substantial' and remains a Collective Database." ( http://wiki.openstreetmap.org/wiki/Legal_FAQ#3c._If_I_make_something_with_OSM_data.2C_do_I_now_have_to_apply_your_license_to_my_whole_work.3F ) I also base this on the license ( http://osmfoundation.org/wiki/License#Are_there_any_special_conditions_or_restrictions_for_commercial_or_academic_use.3F) which says, "You can however, put separate and distinct data layers on top of your map, such as icons showing specialists points of interest, routes, track logs, shaded areas, contours and the like, then Share-Alike does not apply to these elements as long as they do not interact with the map underneath." But I see what seem to be conflicting responses to such questions, such as on: https://help.openstreetmap.org/questions/1073/commercial-use-in-an-application-licenceable?page=1&focusedAnswerId=41359#41359 Any clarity would be most appreciated. I posted on the forum but was told I should ask the question here instead. Thanks. Ben
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