"Lowell C. Savage" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote in part:

>However, there is a good reason for doing it (and I'm not interested in
all
>the stupid "touchy-feely" stuff like "it'll show the Palestinians we're
>'serious' about peace, or whatever).

>The reason is that it will (at least in Gaza, and probably also in the
West
>Bank) shorten Israel's lines of defense. 

This is amazingly similar to the Proclamation of 1763. 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/British_Royal_Proclamation_of_1763 for
details.  Just substitute "Jews" for "whites" and the Palestinian Authority
for the required Indian tribe meetings.  The difference is that the British
relinquished claim on Israel decades earlier.

> Now that the Gaza settlements are
>gone, Israel's border with Gaza is basically those two straight lines.

Actually my understanding is that Israel is still going to assert control
over the movement of goods & people into & out of the port.  Besides, it's
still technically an occupied part of Egypt.

>Of course, my made-up
>example would be much weaker than the case Israel has against the settlers
>since one of the functions of the government is to protect its people.

What, Israel is obligated to defend Jews everywhere?

>Another function is to engage in foreign policy on behalf of the larger
>community.  So even if the settlers were to say that they no longer needed
>or wanted government protection, some their likely actions (like, killing
>Palestinians in self-defense) would amount to foreign policy actions.

Just as with the Proclamation.  After a few years, 1774 to be exact, the
area in question became part of Quebec anyway.  (Upper Canada had not yet
been split off.  I kid my friend Nancy in Michigan about her living in
Upper Canada.)  Maybe there'll be a similar "resolution" in Israel.

In Your Sly Tribe,
Robert
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