>> Wouldn't that cpu appear to the new OS instance as cpu0?  If so, then
>> it should not be an issue.
>
> No, I don't believe that it does.
> I can try and test this theory if it helps.
> Perhaps my mind is corrupted by x86 thoughts.

We are talking about logical cpu0 here.  Surely the new instance
must call whatever cpu it is running on first "0".  E.g. I could
have used kexec to switch to a UP kernel that only supports cpu0.

-Tony
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