no. The FPU uses CPU state information. A single thread can issue
both FPU and normal CPU instructions and they will be interlaced and
executed in parallel by the hardware. But a single cpu can execute
a single thread, because there is but one program counter per cpu.
Robert Hyatt Computer and Information Sciences
[EMAIL PROTECTED] University of Alabama at Birmingham
(205) 934-2213 115A Campbell Hall, UAB Station
(205) 934-5473 FAX Birmingham, AL 35294-1170
On Mon, 6 Sep 1999, Comandante wrote:
> Suppose that I'm writing a piece of code taht uses the FPU, in a SMP
> system, will be the two units used in paralell if I have two threads
> using them?
>
> I have a dual p200mmx so I have a total of two FPUs, my
> /proc/interrupts says 1 0 XT-PIC after a couple of sins and tans
> and so on, I don't know if I'm not using the FPU or perhaps the
> kernel is using it "polling" I have read the gcc and libc info and
> man pages, and have tried flags like - march=pentium and something
> like -D__NO_MATH_INLINE but my interrupt counter stays at 1 0.
>
> The interrupt for the FPU is XT-PIC ; If I managed to use both FPUs
> how will the kernel know what FPU of what cpu isued the int??
>
> My 2.2.10 kernel is SMP aware and has no FPU emulation code.
>
>
>
> \_/, _
> | @___oo ( Jorge Nerin
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>
> > Greeetings from Zaragoza (Spain)
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