Hi Jon,

Hope you enjoyed Somerset this year; alas I couldn't make it. 

 

In the fullest sense of the modern term, Bunting made arrangements of the old 
harp tunes for piano. The Irish clairseach, the traditional wire strung harp 
was as far away from the piano circa 1840 as the modern oboe is from the 
highland bagpipes. ( the wire harp is far more pleasant to hear and play 
indoors however.) Bunting was writing for an 1840 piano market that was 
swooning over the arrangements of Thomas Moore and where classical music theory 
as it had evolved up to that time was wrongly used to "correct" many tunes. 
Many of the pieces that were originally in modes like dorian or mixolydian, 
wound recast firmly in minor or major key renderings, complete with 4 part 
harmonies and chromatics that as you pointed out are impossible to play on the 
diatonic harp. 



While we owe Edward Bunting a great deal for saving many of these airs, and he 
is the only source for much valuable information on early Irish music, imagine 
if someone in the 19th century like Schumann or Franck, saved hundreds of lute 
compositions from oblivion, only to rewrite them in a form impossible to play 
on the instrument and set them in almost unrecognizable style. 



 Luckily, Bunting kept notebooks of tunes as he collected them from the 
players; these are for the most part direct dictations and much more playable 
to the harp. A modern edition of the notebooks exists and I'll forward the name 
of the author as soon as I can remember it.



So, to cut to the point, Bunting's publications were arrangements; to make them 
playable on the traditional instrument requires reconstruction or at least 
going back to his source material. Both are familiar procedures to early 
musicians.



The Straloch ms. is a horse of another color. While the Bunting took harp 
pieces and reworked them for a totally different instrument, style etc. 
Straloch was a gentleman lutenist who collected current tunes in his area of 
Scotland. While many of the tunes in the Ms were original to the wire harp 
repertory and playable "as is" on that instrument, the settings are clearly for 
the lute. We can share tunes after all!



Chad

 

 

 

----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Jon Murphy<mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
  To: arthurjness<mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]> ; [EMAIL PROTECTED]<mailto:[EMAIL 
PROTECTED]> 
  Cc: lute<mailto:lute@cs.dartmouth.edu> 
  Sent: Thursday, July 21, 2005 1:07 AM
  Subject: Re: Byrd


  In defense of Michael Thames, and in defense of logic.

  Arrangement is a particular interference with the piece of music. I spent
  the weekend at the Somerset Harp Festival and was able to buy the "Bunting"
  book (of 1840) in facsimile. Bunting arranged the old Irish harp music, that
  he had collected by going from county to county after being the scribe for
  the 1792 Belfast Festival. He arranged the pieces for "piano forte" as he
  felt the old Celtic harp was disappearing, and the music had to be
  preserved. I will soon be "transcribing" much of that music back into harp
  friendly arrangements (the piano is quite chromatic, the harp is diatonic
  with the lever changes possible - but the old harp that Bunting described
  had no levers).

  Transcription means just that, a change of a form into another. But if I
  take an old tune, medieval Europe or medieval Scotland, that it written in
  French tab for the lute, and then turn it into stave notation for the harp,
  and then make some modifications (fitting the song) that make it better for
  the harp - Am I Trascribing or am I Arranging? Or if I do it in reverse, and
  take the staves to the tab? Am I transcribing or arranging.

  I bought a book today, at the harp festival. I have a 26x2 double strung
  harp. The book I bought is for 26 string single course harps (the writer is
  an old friend, and a fine cross strung harpist, and I've corrected his
  original book). Am I arranging when I play off his arrangments, or would I
  be transcribing if I were to set his piecec to the double strung harp (which
  I play and he doesn't).

  This thread was too detailed for me, but at a fast scan I think Michael is
  correct, with all due reverence to Arthur's opinion.

  It comes back to "original intent", a great canard that will soon be bandied
  about in the recent nomination to the US Supreme Court. I've always felt
  that J.S. Bach was a covert jazz player, and that he would have loved the
  Swingle Singer's skat version of the Brandenburgs. Too much detail from
  Arthur for me to read, the individual composers an their instruments.

  Be it transcription or arrangement (the latter requiring a bit of
  modification to the instrument) the music is there. There is nothing sacred
  about a tune as played on a particular instrument, it was probably played on
  another in a different form before, but just not printed. The lute is a
  relatively late entrant into medieval music, although quite dominant in the
  renaissance.

  And having said this I can't see the correction of Michael T, as it all fits
  what Arthur has said. Fit the music to the instrument, play the song as it
  can be played. play the whistle or the hautboy, the psaltery or the harp, or
  the lute. I see no argument here. Other than a silly one between
  Transcription and Arrangement. Not mutually exclusive. Michael had it right.

  Transcribe from notation to notation. Transpose when using fixed key
  notition (as with classic staves). (Then one could also transcribe, but that
  is piling on). Or arrange, when one wants to make the best simulation of the
  original sound on another instrument. But don't be too damned sure that your
  instrument is the original. Yesterday I discussed a 1625 Straloch lute book
  piece with a harpist, who knew the same piece for the harp. The harp is far
  older in Scotland than the lute (and older than the lute, as a lute, in
  Europe). Which song/arrangement is older. Which is the
  transcription/rearrangement? I have no idea. And nor does anyone else unless
  they have specifics, which are available but rare.

  Best, Jon



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