On Tue, 25 Feb 2014 07:41:43 -0800 (PST), Christopher Wilke wrote
> Ralf,
>
> On Tue, 2/25/14, R. Mattes <r...@mh-freiburg.de> wrote:
>
> > There is no such thing as "harmony below bass". Please, get
> > all out of your Berkeley Jazz shoes, now.
>
> No, everyone keep your shoes on, please! In fact, 17th century
> players frequently utilized the option to play "harmony below the
> bass" by recognizing chord roots and inverting them as was
> practical. There are even examples of written out lute realizations
> in which every single chord has been voiced in root position(!),

But that is not "harmony below the bass" at all. That's just
substituting the bass note.

> which clearly shows that they understood the theoretical principles
> at work, even if they lacked a terminology to discuss them in
> today's lingo (i.e. "Berkeley Jazz shoes"). According to what we
> know of 17th century theory, players "couldn't" do this, but, well,
>  um, they did. I noted one such instance from Castaldi in my last
> post.

Yes, but there is no mystery at all in that example - and no need to
refer to "modern" (read: Rameauistic) terminology. At that spot Castaldi
just susbstitutes a "Clausula Cantizans" with a *Clausula
Fundamentalis". As you see, they even had a name for it (and allready
Vincentino 1555 mentions the possibility to substitute one with
another). Any musician with only moderate training would know by heart
that a cantizans fa-mi-fa would go together with a fundamentalis
la-re-sol or ut-re-sol and that would fit to a tenorizans mi-re-ut or
fa-re-ut and fa-fa-ut and which of these patterns can be (re-)combined.

> I discuss many more in far greater depth in an article I wrote
> for the LSA which has very frustratingly been in publishing limbo
> for several years.

Too bad - I'd love to read it at some point. Can't you publish it
somewhere else (or publish it online)? I hate when valuable information
gets lost ...

 Cheers, RalfD



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