On Sun, 13 Apr 2014 22:16:16 +0200, Stephan Olbertz wrote > Dear Christopher, > > I was a bit hasty, I'm afraid, and didn't look closely enough to > Anthony's sample, assuming it was all simple octaving basses. I > purchased a pdf and found several instances where indeed the lute > bass has a different, lower note than the violoncello.
Only commenting the sample page: nowhere does the "liuto"-Bass play below the notated bass voice. Unless you follow the theory that the "liuto" voice is notated an ovtave higher than intended. But why would one notate in the highest available key while much better fitting clefs where widely in use (the combination F bass clef and C soprano clef, pretty much the standard combination for keyboard music for quite some time in the 18th century, works extremly well for lute music). And let's not forget the possibility of an archiliuto tuned in A. That would put the highest note of the minué on the 11th fret. Not too different from the demands of late german lute music. My first impression was actually: this looks and sound like music for mandolin or some similar (plectrum played) instrument ... > Now, as > Daniel remarked, this actually seems strange. But on the other hand, > as the lute sound was understood mainly as a 16'-register in the > 18th century, it is maybe not that much of a problem. Which 18th century source does state this explicitly? Cheers, Ralf Mattes To get on or off this list see list information at http://www.cs.dartmouth.edu/~wbc/lute-admin/index.html
