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On May 12, 2013, at 5:45 PM, Daniel Rocha wrote: "Don't you agree that aggregate final prices are equivalent to aggregate labor-time? Anyway, that's what Kliman seems to be saying in the reference you posted." No, I don't agree unless very special care is taken. I am not sure if it is possible with available data. And I don't recall giving any link... "Wages of "necessary but unproductive" labor are costs, "faux frais," and Marx treats them as circulating constant capital because "they have to be made up out of pre-existing values." The GDI, of course, is not organized to reflect Marx's categories like "variable capital." " But then you are going to a Ricardian point of view, not Marxian, if you are going outside standard Marxian categories and considering wages outside productive sector as contributing to the total aggregate. ______________________**__________________ Send list submissions to: Marxism@greenhouse.economics.**utah.edu<Marxism@greenhouse.economics.utah.edu> Set your options at: http://greenhouse.economics.**utah.edu/mailman/options/ **marxism/danieldiniz%40gmail.**com<http://greenhouse.economics.utah.edu/mailman/options/marxism/danieldiniz%40gmail.com> -- Daniel Rocha - RJ danieldi...@gmail.com ________________________________________________ Send list submissions to: Marxism@greenhouse.economics.utah.edu Set your options at: http://greenhouse.economics.utah.edu/mailman/options/marxism/archive%40mail-archive.com
