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Actually I was wondering if this history might provide a Marxist reason for saying that in the case of Crimea, the normal right of self-determination does not apply and the planned vote on Crimean alignment is illegitimate. If the Crimean Tatars have a history going back to at least 1441, if Crimea is their only home, if they were a majority before Stalin reduced their numbers to near zero and replaced them with Russians. Only since 1989 have they been able to return and already their numbers are up to 12%. Why should the still majority Russian population be allowed to short stop this rebalancing by suddenly exercising their "right of self-determination" to consummate the Russian land grab? Clay Claiborne, Director Vietnam: American Holocaust <http://VietnamAmericanHolocaust.com> Linux Beach Productions Venice, CA 90291 (310) 581-1536 Read my blogs at the Linux Beach <http://claysbeach.blogspot.com/> <http://wlcentral.org/user/2965/track> On Wed, Mar 5, 2014 at 9:31 AM, Louis Proyect <l...@panix.com> wrote: > ====================================================================== > Rule #1: YOU MUST clip all extraneous text when replying to a message. > ====================================================================== > > > http://www.theguardian.com/world/2014/mar/05/tartar- > ukraine-sunni-muslims-threat-russian-rule-crimea > > ________________________________________________ > Send list submissions to: Marxism@greenhouse.economics.utah.edu > Set your options at: http://greenhouse.economics.utah.edu/mailman/options/ > marxism/clayclai%40gmail.com > ________________________________________________ Send list submissions to: Marxism@greenhouse.economics.utah.edu Set your options at: http://greenhouse.economics.utah.edu/mailman/options/marxism/archive%40mail-archive.com
